| Blackwood or invitational? |
|
Dear Ed & Peter,
4NT is Blackwood after Notrump is established as suit. A friend of mine says 4NT is slam invitational so the correct sequence is 4NT-6NT (Blackwood doesn't apply).
Thanks, Antony Reply from Ed Hoogenkamp ('South'): Dear Antony, I think it's useful to play 4NT as invitational in a lot of sequences after a 1NT or 2NT opening bid. Usually there is no need to know partner's number of aces. Take this case: if you can count 33 points you will bid 6NT. Blackwood is pointless since only one ace can be out. If you can count 37 points you will bid 7NT, knowing you have all the aces. So the 4NT and the 5NT bid are free to use as invitational bids for 6NT and 7NT. Furthermore I would agree on the following in your bidding system in other situations: Interesting point in this hand is what North should do over an invitational 4NT bid. He has only 20 points but the five card diamond suit improves his hand. On the other hand: he knows partner has only four cards combined in the minors. Difficult. I assume the slam was made because the club lead is difficult to find? The second part of your question I do not understand well. Do you mean to play 4NT as Blackwood and 5NT as invitational? This is certainly possible, but not necessary as I explained earlier. There is no need to bid as high as 5NT (especially since the occasional 5NT minus one really hurts... :-) Peter did some extensive answering on a few Blackwood questions on the Dutch 'sister' site www.bridgevaria.nl so he will surely have something to say about it. Un saludo desde Barcelona Reply from Peter van der Linden ('North'): Dear Antony, Typically Ed: he has copied the juicy parts from my replies to questions on the Dutch site and then says I will have to say something about it as well... There is a good reason for wanting to play 4NT as an invitational bid as often as possible.
1 Invitational to 3NT, but other games are possible as well
1 Invitational to 3NT or 4♠
1 Invitational to 3NT or 4♥ Why then shouldn't one use the same strong tool in slam bidding? 4NT should play the same part in slam bidding as 2NT in game bidding! 1. Two examples:
1 Invitational to 6NT ('quantitative'), not forcing South requests his partner to pass if he has a minimum hand and bid 6NT otherwise.
1 Invitational to 7NT ('quantitative'), forcing South requests his partner to bid 6NT if he has a minimum hand and bid 7NT otherwise. 2. A less clear-cut case:
1 Reverse, game forcing since South has shown 10+ points North has denied a balanced hand. South's hand might be balanced or unbalanced. A quite different situation from the first two auctions therefore. If South would have held six spades, he should not have applied Stayman (how he would have to establish spades is a matter of partnership agreement; opinions differ very much here). So South has shown 5-4 in spades-hearts and no trump suit has been established. Therefore 4NT is indeed invitational, I agree with your friend. (Yet, Blackwood is not such a bad idea here, since you consider a slam holding 11 points 'only' opposite partner's 20-22: if he bids 6NT on 21 points, two aces might still be out. But you'd better ignore that remote possibility). To conclude with, I would say there was a point in establishing spades as trumps anyway, since the suit plays well against even a small doubleton. It is hard to imagine a lay-out where 6♠ is an inferior contract to 6NT. But there are many lay-outs possible where 6♠ is superior to 6NT. Take the actual lay-out. Declarer can still make 6♠ after a club lead (provided he chooses the trump finesse over the ♦K) whereas the chances of 6NT are very slim after a club lead (West will have to have the ♦K and length in both red suits, so he can be squeezed). How South can steer towards 6♠? He might bid 5♠ over 3NT: another slam invitation! En hils fra Orkanger |
||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
