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Bidding a 4-4-4-1

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Dear Peter and Ed,

I picked up four spades, four hearts, four diamonds and a club, and 16 HCP. My partner responded 1NT. How was I to bid on?

Kind regards,
Etienne

Answer Ed Hoogenkamp (South)

Dear Etienne,

Much depends on your system agreements. Can you for instance make another enquiring bid (relay) over partner's 2 response to 2 (Stayman)? By way of a repeated relay, you could find out whether there is a 4(5)-4 fit in diamonds. Although, it wouldn't make that much difference. I would begin with 2 anyway. If partner responds with two of a major, I would probably simply apply Blackwood.
That is, if 4NT is Blackwood now. After all, there is much to be said for having it is a non-forcing slam invitational bid.
Funnily though, you can bid 4NT anyway: it doesn't matter how partner interprets the bid.
If partner responds 2 to Stayman, it's more difficult. Especially if you don't play the earlier mentioned repeated relay (minor suit asking).

Now Peter is the expert in bidding after partner's 1NT opening. Especially on what 4NT means in various sequences. Read for instance his reply A 4NT bid in bridge: Blackwood or natural? to an earlier question.

So I give the floor over to him. It always hurts to admit it, but he simply knows more about these matters. 

Un saludo desde Barcelona

Answer Peter van der Linden (North)

Dear Etienne,

For some time I have been staring at your question. After all, you don't mention who opened (and what), only that partner responded 1NT. So I'm not sure whether you mean:
1. Partner has opened 1NT (which is what Ed assumes)
2. You have opened (I suppose it will have been 1 then) and partner has responded 1NT.

Possibility 1: partner has opened 1NT
I agree partially with Ed.
Bid 2, Stayman. If, however, partner bids a major, I would not bid directly 4NT, like Ed, but would do the cheapest control-showing jump bid. Such a bid establishes partner's major as trumps.
Some examples:

WestNorthEastSouth
1NTpass2
pass
2pass
31

1 Spade control; establishing hearts (by the way: 3 or 3 instead of 3 would be natural and forcing: after all they are not jump bids; about what 2 would mean, opinions differ widely, this is therefore a matter of partnership agreement)

WestNorthEastSouth
1NTpass2
pass
2pass
41

1 Club control; establishing spades

WestNorthEastSouth
1NTpass2
pass
2pass
41

1 Diamond control, denying a club control (!), establishing spades

After this beginning, 4NT — whoever bids it — is always Blackwood.

Why not directly 4NT? For two reasons:
- A slam is not certain, since NS might be missing ace-king in one suit: by bidding controls NS can discover such a gap
- I recommend strongly not to play a direct 4NT bid as Blackwood; another meaning is more efficient:

WestNorthEastSouth
1NTpass2
pass
2pass
4NT1

1 'Quantitative': South denies (!) four-card heart support (he has four spades therefore: why else apply Stayman?) and asks North to choose from:
- pass (minimum, no four-card spades)
- 5 (minimum, four-card spades)
- 6NT (maximum, no four-card spades)
- 6 (maximum, four-card spades)
Compare these sequences with the situations where South over 2 continues with 2NT: the principle is the same. The big advantage is that North co-decides!
(And what if there is no need that North co-decides, so that if South is so strong, then all he needs to know to bid a slam is North's number of aces? Well, then South should, over 2, first jump bid a control, as we've seen before. This way he establishes hearts as trumps. Only then can he bid 4NT, which is now Blackwood, no doubt. After such a sequence North is not allowed to pass 4NT).

Don't you think this is a much better and much more logical method of slam bidding than routinely and bluntly jumping to 4NT, meant as Blackwood...? Unfortunately many partnerships do the latter...

Finally: if partner responds 2 to Stayman you can:
- Apply a convention (Minor Suit Asking, Ed mentioned it) in order to find an eventual diamond fit
- Bid 4NT if you haven't agreed upon Minor Suit Asking: again quantitatively (non-forcing, slam invitational)! Let partner have his say about 'slam or not'; after all a slam is not on if partner has a minimum. Partner passes or bids 6NT. (If you had been a bit stronger, you would have bid 6NT).

Possibility 2: you have opened 1 and partner has responded 1NT:

WestNorthEastSouth

1
pass1NTpass
??

I think the choice must be between a somewhat cowardly pass and a somewhat aggressive 2NT bid. Don't fear the club suit! Partner has at least four clubs since he neither responded 1 nor 1 nor 2. So trying to find a 4-4 fit in a major is pointless, partner has denied a four-card major suit.
Don't bid 2 or 2, stating you 'are only describing your hand', since you don't: such a reverse bid shows at least five diamonds!

En hils fra Orkanger

 

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