Dear Ed and Peter,

This is what happened:

N/..		♠	9 7 2
		♥	A 8
		♦	J 10 6 5 3
		♣	10 8 3
♠	K 6 4			♠	A Q 10 5
♥	K 10 9 6			♥	4
♦	K 8 7 4			♦	A 9
♣	9 5			♣	A K Q 7 6 2
		♠	J 8 3
		♥	Q J 7 5 3 2
		♦	Q 2
		♣	J 4

¹ 3⁺ clubs

Since 1♣ has not established a suit, would 4NT be quantitative or Blackwood?

Thanks,
Doug Kinney,

Answer Ed Hoogenkamp (South)

Dear Doug,

Before I answer your question, some observations.
I assume East's 3♥ showed a strong hand without interest to defend (after all, he could have doubled). A bold bid, because it's basically game forcing and west could be very weak.
Now West bids 3NT. Does this show that his earlier pass was a penalty pass (meaning: he would have passed a reopening double by East to defend 2♥ doubled) or merely a heart stopper (East has shown a very strong hand).
These are questions a partnership has to discuss.

So now we arrive at 4NT. In my opinion this cannot be asking for aces if West can be weak. I think it shows doubt and means: 'Partner, if you are not weak, bid on.' If East had wanted to use Blackwood he would have bid 4♣ first, to establish the trump suit.

Un saludo, regards from Barcelona

Answer Peter van der Linden (North)

Dear Doug,

After having opened 1♣, a non-forcing bid, East suddenly bids forcing at the three level, after having heard that his partner may have a bust. Clearly East must be having a very good club suit, since with any strong two-suiter he would have bid (possibly with a jump) his second suit. So East clearly has a hand suited for a semi-forcing opening bid in clubs, but he did not open with a semi-forcing since either his system doesn't include it (many play 2♣ as game forcing) or he chose not to do so since he has a four-card major.
Next, West bids 3NT. I think this shows only a heart guard. So West can be very weak. Of course his earlier pass may have been a penalty pas, but if so, he cannot have a lot (say ♥K10xxx and little else), since with a good hand he wouldn't settle for 3NT now, after partner has shown a whale of a hand.

So:
- East probably has the strength for a semi-forcing opening — but he cannot be stronger still, since he didn't open 2♣
- West can be very weak.
I conclude that 4NT certainly cannot be Blackwood. East invites West to bid on if he has a relatively good hand in view of his 3NT bid.
You didn't ask what West should bid over 4NT, but I am convinced he should bid on. I think he should show zero aces. The fact that he replies, means he has a good hand — but sadly no aces. East will probably bid 6♣ now, which West may correct to 6NT (although each of these bids is not clear cut...).

Furthermore I would like to react to Ed's remark: 'If East had wanted to use Blackwood he would have bid 4♣ first, to establish the trump suit.' I do not agree. Firstly because I think East cannot possibly want to use Blackwood opposite a partner ho hasn't promised any strength (West may have bid 3NT on ♥QJxx and nothing else). Therefore 4♣ by East instead of 4NT would not have been forcing in my opinion: if East wants to establish clubs, planning to use Blackwood next (this is what Ed suggests), he must be strong enough to open 2♣. Ergo: 4♣ would not be forcing but strongly invitational.

To conclude with: 4NT should, in my opinion, in many occasions not be Blackwood, an overrated convention. Most players are too quick to use it as such. I have written about this earlier, click for instance the following link: Blackwood or invitational?.

En hils, regards from Orkanger