In a recent hand playing standard Acol I opened 2NT (20 points, with 2 spades: ♠Qx). My partner jumped raised to 4♠. I mistakenly took this for a slam request but after Blackwood I ended up in 5♠ (1 off).
So, for a jump raise to game in a major from 2NT should I always pass i.e. should I have left it in 4♠ (makes easily).

Thanks,
Andrew Whittingham,

Answer Ed Hoogenkamp (South)

Dear Andrew,

I see you do not play Jacoby transfers over partner's 2NT opening.  I'm not very familiar with any system without transfers. I presume a 3♠ bid would be forcing. So what would be the difference between 3♠ and 4♠? I'm not sure. Discuss this with partner. If for example 3♠ asks you to choose between 3NT and 4♠ you can agree to use 4♠ as a semi balanced slam try. (With six or more spade and no slaminterest you start with 3♠ and correct 3NT by partner to 4♠)
But only after agreeing this bid has this meaning. Without specific agreements you should always pass 4♠.

Saludos, regards from Barcelona,

Answer Peter van der Linden (North)

Dear Andrew,

If you don't play transfers (a rare thing these days), a direct jump to 4♠ means: 'This is where I want to play, do not bid on.'
If partner had been stronger, meaning he would have been interested in a slam, he would have started with a (forcing!) 3♠-bid.
This is consistent with the Principle of Fast Arrival: in a game-forcing situation (and 3♠ makes the bidding game forcing), jumping to game is weaker than bidding the (suggested) trump suit below game.

By the way: those who do play transfer bids, have to agree with partner as well about how to distinguish in the bidding between:
- a five-card major suit without slam interest
- a five-card major suit with slam interest
- a six-card major suit without slam interest
- a six-card major suit with slam interest.
I'm glad you didn't ask about that...

En hils, regards from Orkanger